AICPA Exam CPA-Financial Topic 1 Question 91 Discussion

Choice 'd' is correct. A change from the cost method (less than 20% ownership) to the equity method (20% or more ownership or a Board seat or other significant influence) of accounting for investment in an investee is neither an accounting change nor an accounting error. If it is not an accounting change, it cannot be a change in accounting principle or a change in accounting estimate since those two types of changes are both accounting changes.

There is a considerable amount of controversy on this particular answer. Some people think that this change is a change in accounting principle (something certainly changed, but was it the accounting principle?), and others think it is a change in accounting entity (which is not one of the available answers; anyway, did the accounting entity actually change or is it the same entity accounted for differently?). Under SFAS No. 154, a change in accounting principle is treated retrospectively and a change in accounting entity is treated retrospectively.

This kind of change (cost to equity) has never been specifically identified in any accounting literature as either a change in accounting principle or a change in accounting entity. The words 'cost method' were never mentioned in APB 20 (other than the full cost method for oil & gas companies, which is an entirely different subject), nor was it mentioned in SFAS No. 154. It was, however, discussed in APB 18 (the pronouncement for the equity method) in Paragraph 19m (bold added): 'An investment in common stock of an investee that was previously accounted for on other than the equity method may become qualified for use of the equity method by an increase in the level of ownership described in paragraph 17 (i.e., acquisition of additional voting stock by the investor, acquisition or retirement of voting stock by the investee, or other transactions). When an investment qualifies for use of the equity method, the investor should adopt the equity method of accounting. The investment, results of operations (current and prior

periods presented), and retained earnings of the investor should be adjusted retroactively in a manner consistent with the accounting for a step-by-step acquisition of a subsidiary.'

What does all this mean? It means that, when there is a change in the percentage of ownership that changes accounting from the cost method to the equity method, the change is treated retroactively (just like changes in accounting entity used to be treated, although they are now treated retrospectively). It does not say that the change is a change in accounting principle or anything else. Nothing in SFAS No.154 changed this treatment. So all this still makes Choice 'd' correct. This whole issue might easily be considered to be splitting hairs, at the very least. Some questions on the CPA exam are just that way. Most are not.